There still appears to be a question about the data suggesting that <drinkers get paid more than non-drinkers.
Perhaps the data are from an era or a context where males were more likely to drink alcohol than females, and we already know that across the world males earn more than females. If so then that could be misconstrued to suggest that you earn more if you drink alcohol. (I admit I'm using a lot of conjecture here!)
There still appears to be a question about the data suggesting that <drinkers get paid more than non-drinkers.
Perhaps the data are from an era or a context where males were more likely to drink alcohol than females, and we already know that across the world males earn more than females. If so then that could be misconstrued to suggest that you earn more if you drink alcohol. (I admit I'm using a lot of conjecture here!)